Assume that m,n,and p are integers and gcd(mn,p)=1. Show that gcd(m,p)=1.
Clearly indicate reasons for each step in your proof.
What I did:
K=gcd(mn,p)
mn=K*a
p =K*b
But what is the next step?
Thanks
收錄日期: 2021-04-13 20:16:22
原文連結 [永久失效]:
https://hk.answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20140224000051KK00016