Edit: You miss the point completely, but you can be forgiven because it is known cognitive dissonance. And years of conditioning by watchtower publications. In your answer you criticize translators for inserting ‘their own interpretation’ by “adding the definite article into their text”. And yet a few sentences later, have to agree with them.
Your use of vine and his interpretation of (1 Peter 3:19) proves nothing at all as the question isn’t about the “spirits of antediluvian people” but about demons.
As for your views on (Eccl 9:5-10; Ps 146:4) I dealt with those quite adequately by showing how you ignored the context of the whole book of Ecclesiastes here.
https://uk.answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20210216165938AA7JQHb
An interesting question David, and it raises the question of the origin of demons. Some theologians teach that Rather than being ‘Fallen Angels’ demons are actually the disembodied spirits of dead Nephilim giants who perished at the time of the great flood.
One presenting this View Dr. M. Heiser is found here:
https://blog.logos.com/where-do-demons-come-from/
I am not saying that I accept all that Heiser states, but he does present quite a compelling case. Especially in his book “the unseen realm”.
Now let me deal with the answer presented by the JW teem, who states;
“Jesus was not 'pleading' with the demons to change, since they were not sons of Adam, but were once sons of the true God.”
Now if Heiser is correct and you would have to read the evidence he puts forward in his book ‘the unseen realm’. Then demons were NOT once true sons of God.
Teem also states:
“What is interesting is how many translators insert their interpretation in the texts. Many translations add the definite article into their text, "the Son of God" whereas the Greek actually reads: "a son of God".”
Then he presents us with 5 example scriptures of ‘a son of God’ to prove his point.
Teem says he finds this interesting, what I find interesting is that he totally ignores the 28 times that Jesus is referred to as ‘the son of God’ even in his own mistranslation of the scriptures the NWT.
c.f. (Matt 16:16, Matt 26:63, Mark 3:11, Luke4:41, Luke 22:70, John 1:34, John 1:49, John 3:18, John 5:25, John 11:4, John 11:27, John 20:31, Acts 9:20, 2 Cor 1:19, Galatians 2:20, Ephesians 4:13, Hebrews 4:14, Hebrews 6:6, Hebrews 7:3, Hebrews 10:29, 1 John3:8, 1 John 4:15, 1 John 5:5, 1 John 5:10, 1 John 5:12, 1 John 5:13, 1 John 5:20 and Revelation 2:18.).
In these scriptures from the NWT, this title is given by Demons, scribes, John the Baptist, Nathaniel, Martha, John the apostle, Paul the Apostle, and Jesus Himself, who really ought to know whether or not he is ‘a son of God’ or ‘the son of God’.
Perhaps the reason that the “many translators added the definite article into their text, “the son of God” as teem states, is because in Greek its use depends on whether the noun its accompanying is masculine, feminine or neuter, singular or plural.