Why become a drug permitted in Europe and the United States, and the government does not punish those who owned and rented?

2015-08-20 1:36 pm
更新1:

hj

回答 (8)

2015-08-20 1:42 pm
Because oranges deflate noisy boulders at midnight charcoal.

EVERYONE knows THAT.
2015-08-20 1:53 pm
well--this one is the winner for the day for the
1). English is not my primary language question,
2). I can't write a coherent sentence question.
2015-08-20 1:43 pm
Try again son.... I have no idea what you are asking.
2015-08-20 1:38 pm
This question is incoherent. What on earth are you trying to ask? If you cannot write coherent English, you shouldn't attempt to post questions in that language.
2015-08-20 1:39 pm
Go back to school. Your English skills suck big floppy donkey dick.
2015-08-20 1:59 pm
You win today's prize for incoherence.
2015-08-20 1:55 pm
How do you RENT a drug ???
2015-08-20 2:06 pm
in Europe, some countries decide that they will no longer prosecute possesion of so called recreation drugs (cannabis and in some cases, Extasis for instance). the logic behind is that prosecuting possesion costs money and increases the price of the drug on the black trade, whereas by legalising, you quit prosecuting personal use growers and users and get the DRUG MONEY out of equation.
that's how it has worked in Netherlands.

elsewhere (say, Czech republic) the law would be fuzzy, leading to stupid instances where personnel of growshops (basically, gardening shops) are indicted by police for "propagation and enabling production of" illegal drug while possesion of "ammount smaller than small" [literal translation] is not illegal per se.

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