Let f be the subset of QXZ defined by f={(m/n,m):m,n belongs to Z, n not equal to 0}. Is f a function from Q to Z? justify your answer?
回答 (2)
2015-08-12 9:49 pm
No; observe that f(1/2) = 1, but f(2/4) = 2 although 1/2 = 2/4.
I hope this helps!
I hope this helps!
2015-08-12 10:05 pm
Yes because m does not equal m(n). m can never exist more than once.
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