Newton's first law

2015-07-06 9:01 am
The first law states that if an object is not acted by some forces, its velocity remains unchanged.

I want to know whether the following proof makes sense or have some logical problems.

I imagine that an object is at rest in a completely empty universe. It certainly remains at rest as there is nothing that may alters it.

However, I cannot claim that the object is really at rest. As an analogy, ancients do not know the rotation of the earth except from long lasting astronomical observations, but the earth surface is actually moving with approximately linear velocity if observed from outside the planet.
I may conclude that there exists unknowability for uniform velocity.

Therefore, the object keeping at rest in my view is equivalently saying that it keeps having constant velocity in the "god's view" who know its actual velocity.

So an object will not change its velocity when no forces act upon it.

If there exists more appropriate proof or deduction , please also tell me.

回答 (2)

2015-07-06 11:34 pm
✔ 最佳答案
An object is at rest or in motion is a relative concept, depending on the Inertia Reference System that the observer is in.

As said in the Theory of Special Relativity, all laws of physics behave the same in any Inertia Reference System, whether the system is "at rest" or in "constant motion at uniform speed". In order words, an observer cannot tell, just by performing physical experiments, that he is at rest or moving at uniform speed.


2015-07-10 15:19:42 補充:
Your suppl question:
In the actual fact, observers do not know they are in motion or not. As said in my answer, they cannot determine that they ar ein motion by performing physical experiments.

2015-07-10 15:21:04 補充:
(cont'd)...
There is nothing known as "absolutely at rest" in the universe.
2015-07-06 3:30 pm
如果你在多個觀察點上檢測物體都是靜止的,就可斷言物體是靜止不動的。


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