My LORD said to my LORD?

2015-03-12 3:32 pm

回答 (8)

2015-03-12 3:49 pm
Yup. Jesus is the Lord. And king David, if he wrote the Psalm, knew at least some of what that meant.
2015-03-12 3:38 pm
*** it-2 p. 10 Jehovah ***
As to the properness of this course, note the following acknowledgment by R. B. Girdlestone, late principal of Wycliffe Hall, Oxford. The statement was made before manuscript evidence came to light showing that the Greek Septuagint originally contained the name Jehovah. He said: “If that [Septuagint] version had retained the word [Jehovah], or had even used one Greek word for Jehovah and another for Adonai, such usage would doubtless have been retained in the discourses and arguments of the N. T. Thus our Lord, in quoting the 110th Psalm, instead of saying, ‘The Lord said unto my Lord,’ might have said, ‘Jehovah said unto Adoni.’”
2015-03-12 5:33 pm
No, you have misquoted that. Only the first 'Lord' is in capital letters.
2015-03-12 4:45 pm
You have not written it correctly. Typically it appears so in English Bibles:
- The LORD said (un)to my lord...
The passage is more precisely rendered:
- Yahweh says to my lord...
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=psa%20110:1&multilayout=cols&version=NASB;WEB
2015-03-12 4:41 pm
Is this the lord of the land. As in the old testament Book of Numbers, Moses spoke to the lord about Tirzah and her sisters inheriting land.
2015-03-12 3:37 pm
"Pull my finger..."
2015-03-12 3:32 pm
What is your question?
2015-03-12 3:40 pm
Get your JW garbage out of here.


收錄日期: 2021-04-21 01:28:40
原文連結 [永久失效]:
https://hk.answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20150312073215AAJGDdN

檢視 Wayback Machine 備份