is it possible to prove that 1=2?
回答 (11)
2015-01-09 11:22 am
YES!
a = b
*multiply by a*
a squared = ab
*subtract b^2*
a squared - b squared = ab-b squared
*factorize*
(a-b)(a+b) = b(a-b)
*divide by (a-b)*
a+b = b
*substitute by a=b*
b+b = b
2b = b
2 = 1
It's not mathematically correct but it happens when you multiply or divide by a variable because that variable may be equal to zero.
And you may also get 1=0.
a = b
*multiply by a*
a squared = ab
*subtract b^2*
a squared - b squared = ab-b squared
*factorize*
(a-b)(a+b) = b(a-b)
*divide by (a-b)*
a+b = b
*substitute by a=b*
b+b = b
2b = b
2 = 1
It's not mathematically correct but it happens when you multiply or divide by a variable because that variable may be equal to zero.
And you may also get 1=0.
2015-01-10 10:05 am
Never
2015-01-17 7:07 am
1 = 0.5 or 1/2 or 50% of 2
One interesting magic
That is
1/2 of 1 = 0.5
and
2 of 1 = 2
Multiply 2 times of 1 with half of 1
that is equal to 0.5 (1/2 of 1) x 2 (2 x 1)
= 0.5 x 2
= 1.0 or 1
So, you can prove that half of 1 and 2 times of 1 multiplied gives 1 as the answer.
But note that it will not work with any number like
(2 x 0.5) x (2 x 2)
= 1 x 4
= 4
We tried with 2 but it gives us 4.
One interesting magic
That is
1/2 of 1 = 0.5
and
2 of 1 = 2
Multiply 2 times of 1 with half of 1
that is equal to 0.5 (1/2 of 1) x 2 (2 x 1)
= 0.5 x 2
= 1.0 or 1
So, you can prove that half of 1 and 2 times of 1 multiplied gives 1 as the answer.
But note that it will not work with any number like
(2 x 0.5) x (2 x 2)
= 1 x 4
= 4
We tried with 2 but it gives us 4.
2015-01-10 1:23 am
No, because they are clearly not the same.
2015-01-09 10:31 am
1 is NOT same as 2 all those proves all have loopholes such as dividing by 0 etc
Is not possible to prove. Any enthusiasm about 'HEY MOM II"VE PROVED THAT 1=2 !"Are all kiddos
Is not possible to prove. Any enthusiasm about 'HEY MOM II"VE PROVED THAT 1=2 !"Are all kiddos
2015-01-09 10:04 am
II don't think so
2015-01-09 10:03 am
No. Those proves of 1=2 that you've seen all have some loopholes. Try to find them yourself :D
2015-01-09 9:58 am
Check Spivak Calculus page 13. Problem 2.
2015-01-09 9:57 am
Yes, by dividing both sides by 0 or by multiplying both sides by 0
2015-01-10 9:25 am
sum (1+1=2)
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