I am just curious, not trying to hurt anyone. ezekiel 28:7 seems to apply to Jesus i.e. killed by foreigners, for saying he is God. Explain?

2015-01-06 6:36 am
更新1:

https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Ezekiel+28

回答 (5)

2015-01-06 6:44 am
Clearly refers to the King of Tyre.
2015-01-06 7:00 am
It refer to the King of Tyre, and BTW there is no reference to Jesus in the OT. The OT is the bible of Judaism and the Jews did not accept a son of a god.
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2015-01-06 6:46 am
Ignore the blind answers saying it only applies to the King of Tyre, the Bible is clear that things REPEAT THEMSELVES:

Ecclesiastes 1:9 What has been will be again, what has been done will be done again; there is nothing new under the sun.

I suppose you are wondering why the message to the King of Tyre, who is often considered evil and sharing the spirit of Satan could be applied to Jesus if he is all good. Well you see Jesus said not even he, as a man, is good (Luke 18:19, Mark 10:18), this is because Jesus became a sin offering, he became sin personified on the cross, and while he rose the sins of humanity stayed nailed to the cross, in effect Satan got nailed to the cross, so this passage applies to the King of Tyre and as a prophecy about both Jesus and Satan.
參考: 2 Corinthians 5:21 God made him who had no sin to be sin for us, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.
2015-01-06 6:54 am
Not for that, for the same reason Satan was casted down on earth.
Eze 28:2 Because thy heart is lifted up
2015-01-06 6:54 am
Warning of calamity for the King of Tyre at the hands of Nebuchadnezzar. Nothing more.


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