✔ 最佳答案
1. No. It depends on the reason why he does that.
2. Yes. However, it does not mean he can legally do that. He may be liable in some extends.
3. It depends on if it has been fully stipulated. If so, the settlement agreement is the basis you can file with the court for an enforcement order (or Writ of Execution).
4. It is presumed yes. However, it depends on the circumstance. For example, he can claim he signed because the lawyer forced him. If this turns out to be true, then he is entitled to ask that agreement to be void (as he signed under duress).
5. Yes. See #4.
6. Yes - unless the other side agrees, legal proceedings are required in order to void stipulated agreements.
2014-04-30 11:05:11 補充:
1. No comment - I don't know what kind of document that he fails to sign.
2. Maybe. Maybe not. It depends on the case. And sorry to say - not enough information.
3. It is not you who can claim he is not under duress. He can be the only one making this claim.
2014-05-06 03:31:51 補充:
You have a lawyer. So at this moment, you should let your lawyer to work for you.
There is nothing you or others can really do.