About Eng grammar

[匿名]

2013-10-08 12:10 am

Which of the following sentences is correct

1. Any term in the mortgage which postpones the date of redemption such as to make the right of redeem illusory is to be void

2. Any term in the mortgage which postpones the date of redemption such as to make the right of redeem illusory is void

更新1:

You spot that too, but just one more question, what is the difference between is void and is to be voided.

回答 (1)

Edward Y

2013-10-09 7:21 pm

✔ 最佳答案

Both are incorrect, but sentence 1 has two errors, whereas sentence 2 has only one error.

In both sentences, "right of redeem" should be either "right of redemption" or "right to redeem". It is incorrect to put "of" in front of a verb.

In sentence 1, "is to be void" is incorrect. It should be either "is to be voided" (i.e. using void as a verb, in the passive voice), or "is void" (i.e. using void as an adjective).

2013-10-10 07:48:49 補充：
They have very similar meaning.
"is void" is more direct. "If the term ........., then it is void."
"is to be voided" requires a further action to make it void. "if the term ....... then it has to be made void.

2013-10-10 07:49:14 補充：
Therefore, for a legal document, "is void" is better, because it directly relates a conseqence (void) to a condition (if the term makes the right of redemption unexecutable).

參考: My Past Learning

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