Given that y varies directly as x, where y>x, is it true that (y+2) varies directly as (x+2) ?
Explain briefly.
F5 Maths
2012-06-28 2:51 am
回答 (2)
2012-06-29 8:25 am
✔ 最佳答案
The answer is no.First, y varies directly as x,
i.e. y=kx (where k is any real number smaller than 1)
From the above,
(y)+2=(kx)+2
but not y+2=k(x+2)=kx+2k,
therefore,it is wrong that （y+2） varies directly as (x+2）
2012-07-08 4:26 am
Surely not the case, because
x/y is not the same as ( x + 2 ) / ( y + 2 ) implying no unique Variation Constant exists.
x/y is not the same as ( x + 2 ) / ( y + 2 ) implying no unique Variation Constant exists.
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