Supposef (×) is a single-variable concave function satisfying f (0) = 0. Show that for all k >=1, wehave k f (x) >=f (kx). What happens if k屬於 [0, 1)?
thx~~~~~~~
economic math
2011-10-07 10:09 am
回答 (1)
2011-10-08 6:43 pm
收錄日期: 2021-04-18 18:35:42
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https://hk.answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20111007000051KK00082