Inverse function f(g(x))=x=g(f(x)) but why?
2011-09-24 4:26 am
I know that if g(x) is the inverse function of f(x), f(g(x))=g(f(x))=x. But can you prove me that is true? Try to explain it as simply as possible. Thank you!
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收錄日期: 2021-05-01 00:03:03
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https://hk.answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20110923202628AA5ZDen