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Within the context of International law on non-discrimination, the meaning of "be subject to" and "be subjected to" are similar, meaning "be under the authority and protection of". In this usage, "subject to" is an adjective, and the "be" in front of it is the main verb, whereas "be subjected to" consists of "be" as the auxiliary verb, placed in front of the past participle "subjected" to form the main verb in the passive voice, and "to" as the preposition.
Under a different context, "subject to" can be used as an adverb to mean "on condition of". E.g. We will pay you, subject to receiving the payment.
Anyway, back to your question, while "be subject to" and "be subjected to" mean "under the authority and protection of", "made subjected to" means "made to be under the authority and protection of", so it carries the meaning of "involuntarily forced to accept the authority and protection". This may seem strange, as everybody subjected to the law is actually involuntarily made to accept its authority, so why did the author emphasize on "made subjected to" ?
The reason stems from the extract itself:
"Dr W A McKean puts forward the formula "arbitrary, invidious or unjustified distinctions, unwanted by those made subject to them" as the definition of discrimination accepted in the international sphere."
This sentence can be re-worded as:
"Dr W.A. McKean introduced the formula of defining what is considered discrimination in a subjective and unfair manner. The definitions are accepted and used in international law, but those (who are discriminated against) who are made to be under the authority and protection of these laws do not want such laws".
Therefore, the author uses the expression "made subjected to" to emphasize his/her point, that the non-discrimination law are made to protect those under discrimination, but they don't want these laws, because these laws are unfair themselves.