Solve x(lnx)=1.

2011-02-25 12:38 am
我自己做: x(lnx)=1
diff. both sides w.r.t.x,
lnx +1 =0
lnx=-1
x=1/e
why putting x=1/e to the original equation is wrong?
更新1:

抱歉,自己錯concept.以上做法只係搵出f '(x)=0 , 並非f (x)=0. f(x)=x(lnx)-1 ,for all x>0 f '(x)=lnx+1 ,for all x>0 f "(x)=1/x ,for all x>0 f '(x)=0 iff x=1/e f "(x) >0 ,for all x>0

更新2:

thus,for all x>0, f(x) attains its min. at x=1/e absolute min. value of f(x) = -(1+e)/e ,which is negative. lim(x→+無限) f(x)=+無限 i.e.f(x)=0 has at least one solution. Hence, please help.

回答 (4)

2011-02-25 4:13 am
✔ 最佳答案


You can consider in this way:


x ln x = 1

ln ( x^x ) = 1

ln ( x^x ) = ln e

x^x = e [ not x = e here, remember ]


Of course it has an unique solution for it is a continuous functions and we must have a root between 1.6 and 2, for 1.^1.6 < e and 2^2 = 4 > e.


However, there is no answer which can be expressed in Surd Form. What you can do is to work out a very close value by Bisection Method, a method which has been removed from HKCEE syllabus since 2006. You can use it to find an approximate value correct to any decimal places you like.


Hope I can help you.



2011-02-27 17:05:45 補充:
For sure Yuk should understand now how the answer can be obtained and why is the original tackling approach unable to find the solution.
參考: Mathematics Teacher Mr. Ip
2011-02-25 6:20 am
Solve x(lnx)=1.

lnx = 1/x

If you familiarize with the graph of ln x and 1/x, then it is not difficult to see that there is only one solution.

On the other hand, consider f(x) = x(lnx) - 1

f(1) = -1 and f(2) = 0.3862

By intermediate value theorem, there should be at least one root in the interval (0.5,2)

Also, f'(x) = (lnx) + 1 which is strictly increasing for x > 1

Since f(1) = -1 and f(x) -> infinity when x -> infinity and f(x) is a continuous function. There should be at least one root by intermediate value theorem

To find out the solution, you can use the bisection method or Newton's method.

2011-02-25 5:22 am
1.763222834
2011-02-25 4:53 am
Consider Newton's method


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