Probability Distribution

[匿名]

2010-09-09 6:51 am

Rule of a game is as follow:
1. Player chooses any number on a dice (1 to 6).
2. Banker throws 3 dice. If there are n (1,2 or 3) dice showing the same number chosen by the player, banker will pay n coins to the player, otherwise, player will pay 1 coin to the banker.
If X = No. of coins won by the player, then the probability distribution of X is a binomial distribution. Is this true? If yes, please explain.

回答 (1)

用戶9112

2010-09-09 7:40 am

✔ 最佳答案

====================================================

圖片參考：http://img709.imageshack.us/img709/4793/90919166.png

2010-09-08 23:40:22 補充：
http://img709.imageshack.us/img709/4793/90919166.png

2010-09-09 00:01:01 補充：
...............................................

2010-09-10 06:59:49 補充：
Although the 4 numbers look like binomial, but the corresponding X are 3,2,1 and -1 intead of 3, 2, 1 and 0, the distribution may not be considered as true binomial distribution.

👍 0 👎 0