As shown above, could someone give me an answer about what the difference is between the two sentences. Obviously, I'm confused about the right uses of "never" and "ever". Could someone help me solve the problem with one or two examples?
Thanks in advance.
"I have never seen" vs "I have ever seen"?
2010-07-16 9:26 am
回答 (4)
2010-07-16 9:30 am
✔ 最佳答案
"I have never seen ... " means you have never seen whatever your focus/subject is. "I have ever seen ... " would mean you have at some point (at least once) seen the focus/subject.
In fact, I haven't heard anyone in recent times say "I have ever seen ... ".
2010-07-16 4:58 pm
An example using both phrases:
"What a spectacular sight! Why, I have never seen such wonders!"
"That is quite a sight for sore eyes. Best I have ever seen!"
"What a spectacular sight! Why, I have never seen such wonders!"
"That is quite a sight for sore eyes. Best I have ever seen!"
2010-07-16 4:46 pm
"I have never seen" is used to state a lack of familiarity with something.
"Ihave ever seen" indicates that the speaker is comparing 2 or more things. Never and ever are your contextual indicator words.
"Ihave ever seen" indicates that the speaker is comparing 2 or more things. Never and ever are your contextual indicator words.
2010-07-16 4:38 pm
Of the two sentences, only the first one is correct. "I have never seen a pig fly".
The second could work as a phrase, but not a sentence. "That is the most beautiful girl I have ever seen".
Actually, they both work but in very different ways.
The second could work as a phrase, but not a sentence. "That is the most beautiful girl I have ever seen".
Actually, they both work but in very different ways.
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