Take g=10ms-2 assume no energy loss.
ANSWER (1)
1/2mv2 =mgh
v =2ms-1
但如果我用v2-u2 =2as
answer is v=2ms-1 , too.不過阿sir話唔用得哩絛式,點解?
更新1:
To physic s 8801 why the acceleration is not uniform.?解釋得clear d?thanks
更新2:
acceleration is g?= 10ms^2?
更新3:
To deathnotesimonxdd: 我知你想講咩,不過你可唔可以用graph來解釋?thanks!!
更新4:
how不是全向上?what is the direction of the forces??