Hello, I have one thing that confounds me, could anyone good at English grammar help me?
I come across a sentence below:
I love sports and anything outdoors, BE IT camping. hiking, canoeing, surfing, skiing...etc.
My question is: why the sentence put 'be'(operator) in front of 'it'(subject), it seems absurd although I know it is grammatically correct (as it's copied from my grammar book). I've heard about 'subject-operator (or verb) inversion, is it related to this kind of thing?
Thanks in advance.
ps: I've posted this question on the "Yahoo Answers" 2 days ago but no one answers yet,so I post the same question here. So, please help =.=
Subject-operator inversion?
2010-03-05 6:08 am
回答 (2)
2010-03-05 11:04 pm
✔ 最佳答案
Agree with 002, I'm not sure if this is "old English" but as far as I know no one talk or write like this.Check your grammar book to see it publication date or reference to check the origin.
I will not bother with it.
Nowadays, the simple writing should be:
I like sports and outdoor activities, such as camping, hiking, ...skiing, etc.
This has nothing to do with the subject-operator inversion.
e.g.
He had scarcely left the office when the phone rang.
Subject-operator inversion:
Scarely had he left the office when the phone rang.
寫法用意是先表達重點的adv作為主調。
e.g.
Little did I know you love sports!
我竟然對你喜愛運動一無所知！
[中文沒有這種強調寫法，只能加上一些助語詞作補充配合原意。]
2010-03-05 8:27 am
收錄日期: 2021-04-11 01:25:56
原文連結 [永久失效]:
https://hk.answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20100304000051KK01505