there is trade when...

[匿名]

2009-10-19 5:52 am

There is trade only when people have a surplus in some goods or a shortage in some other goods.
Is it true?

更新1:

Re: Carl Tang But this question is put in the chapter of theorem of exhange, is there something to do with MUV?

回答 (2)

impossdream

2009-10-19 6:12 am

✔ 最佳答案

False.

Trade is only possible when people have a surplus in some goods AND a shortage in some other goods (AT THE SAME TIME).

The existence of a surplus only means there're sellers. The existence of a shortage only means there're buyers. Trade is only possible when there're both sellers AND buyers (not sellers OR buyers) AT THE SAME TIME .

Besides, buyers and sellers must exist AT THE SAME TIME in order to conduct trades.

Wish that it can help!

2009-10-19 01:05:50 補充：
Nothing to do with Marginal Use Values here.

Your statement: There is trade only when people have a surplus in some goods OR a shortage in some other goods.

The problem lies in the connective OR. No trade is possible when there is only a surplus Or a shortage. It takes both to facilitate trade.

Cheers!

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[匿名]

2009-10-19 5:54 am

the rule of demand and supply?

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