and lim of f(x) at x = a is infinity,
is it true that lim of [f(x) g(x)] at x = a is infinity?
Thanks.
更新1:
If lim of f(x) at x = a is infinity and lim of g(x) at x = a is infinity, is it true that lim of [f(x) g(x)] at x = a is infinity? Thanks.