1/a^-2 does that equal to a^2?
回答 (4)
2009-06-16 8:11 am
✔ 最佳答案
Yes.1 / a ^ (-2) = 1 / [ 1 / a ^ (2) ] = a^2
2009-06-16 6:17 pm
YES !
2009-06-16 3:35 pm
1/(a^-2)
= 1/[1/(a^2)]
= 1[(a^2)/1]
= a^2
â´ yes, it does.
= 1/[1/(a^2)]
= 1[(a^2)/1]
= a^2
â´ yes, it does.
2009-06-16 3:14 pm
yes
a has a negative index (-2) in fraction 1/a^-2
when a "goes on top" of the fraction( that is at the numerator), its sign changes from - to +
a has a negative index (-2) in fraction 1/a^-2
when a "goes on top" of the fraction( that is at the numerator), its sign changes from - to +
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