AL Pure Maths

2009-02-13 5:24 am
Explain the following theorem:

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回答 (4)

2009-02-13 6:35 am
✔ 最佳答案
I think the argument of EMK is not good enough
We need to think thatthe range of x is bounded [0,1/√2] . So, p(x) is bounded from above and below
i.e. C<=p(x)<=M
Thus C∫(0 to 1/√2) x^k dx <= ∫(0 to 1/√2) [x^kp(x)]dx <= M∫(0 to 1/√2) x^k dx

Therefore to prove your statement, it suffices to show that
lim(k→∞) ∫(0 to 1/√2) x^k dx = 0

Now since
∫(0 to 1/√2) x^k dx = 1/[(k+1)(√2)^{k+1}]
and it is clear that
lim(k→∞) 1/[(k+1)(√2)^{k+1}] = 0

Hence we have
lim(k→∞) ∫(0 to 1/√2) x^k dx = 0
and thus the original statement holds.
2009-02-13 8:05 pm
某程度上來說,myisland8132 的做法是比較「正路」,不過EMK 的方法也是可以,所以我不會說是"not good enough".
(無意冒犯myisland8132,純綷討論數學。)
至於Dominated Convergence Theorem,實在太強了,所謂殺雞焉用牛刀,個人認為在做elementary的問題時,能避免用太強的定理是好的,有助掌握基本功夫。
2009-02-13 7:22 am
Dominated Convergence Theorem
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dominated_convergence_theorem

2009-02-13 21:31:29 補充:
: )
2009-02-13 5:32 am
Since the integral is linear, that means, for two polynomials p(x) and q(x),
∫(0 to 1/√2) [p(x)+q(x)]dx = ∫(0 to 1/√2) p(x)dx + ∫(0 to 1/√2) q(x)dx

Therefore to prove your statement, it suffices to show that
lim(k→∞) ∫(0 to 1/√2) x^k dx = 0

Now since
∫(0 to 1/√2) x^k dx = 1/[(k+1)(√2)^{k+1}]
and it is clear that
lim(k→∞) 1/[(k+1)(√2)^{k+1}] = 0

Hence we have
lim(k→∞) ∫(0 to 1/√2) x^k dx = 0
and thus the original statement holds.
參考: ME


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