Why does 0! equal to 1?
回答 (6)
2008-12-29 3:50 pm
✔ 最佳答案
(n-1)! = n!/n0!
= (1-1)!
= 1!/1
= 1/1
= 1
2008-12-29 11:51 pm
(n + 1)! = n!(n + 1)! (n = 0)
(0 + 1)! = 0!(0 + 1)!
1! = 0!(1!)
0! = 1!/1!
0! = 1
(0 + 1)! = 0!(0 + 1)!
1! = 0!(1!)
0! = 1!/1!
0! = 1
參考: Factorial (Definition)
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Factorial#Definition
2008-12-29 11:51 pm
Because of the definition of the factorial.
n! = nâ (n â 1)!
Therefore:
n! ⁄ n = (n â 1)!
We already know that 1! = 1... thats easy enough to understand...
n! ⁄ n = (n â 1)!
1! ⁄ 1 = (1 â 1)!
1 ⁄ 1 = (0)!
0! = 1
n! = nâ (n â 1)!
Therefore:
n! ⁄ n = (n â 1)!
We already know that 1! = 1... thats easy enough to understand...
n! ⁄ n = (n â 1)!
1! ⁄ 1 = (1 â 1)!
1 ⁄ 1 = (0)!
0! = 1
2008-12-29 11:50 pm
To the best of my knowledge, 0 never equals 1, since if you have nothing, then that's 0, but if you have something then that's 1.
2008-12-29 11:50 pm
because 0! = 1
(note: ! <<< factorial sign there is no zero)
(note: ! <<< factorial sign there is no zero)
2008-12-29 11:49 pm
Surely thats impossible and it would have to equal 0.
Man thats confusing sorry.
Maybe its like the other stupid rule that any number to the power of 0 is equal to 1 = /
Waah.
Man thats confusing sorry.
Maybe its like the other stupid rule that any number to the power of 0 is equal to 1 = /
Waah.
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