Inequality - 1979

2008-11-05 9:39 pm

圖片參考:http://hk.geocities.com/stevieg_1023/0inequality.gif


show clearly what you have assumed in the MI of part (b)
更新1:

http://hk.geocities.com/stevieg_1023/0inequality.gif

回答 (1)

2008-11-05 10:03 pm
✔ 最佳答案
The statement is clearly true for n=1.

Assume now we have k positive numbers, namely, x_1, x_2, ..., x_k,
such that if x_1*x_2*...*x_k=1, then x_1+x_2+...+x_k>=k.

When n=k+1, we now have k+1 positive numbers, namely,
x_1, x_2, ..., x_k, x_(k+1), and we want to show that
if x_1*x_2*...*x_k*x_(k+1)=1, then x_1+x_2+...+x_k+x_(k+1)>=k+1

If all x_i=1, then it is done.

If not all x_i=1, then WLOG, assume x_1<1<x_(k+1)

then since we have [x_1*x_(k+1)]*x_2*...*x_k=1,
i.e. there are k positive numbers, whose product is 1.

Then by induction assumption, the sum of these numbers is >=k,
i.e. x_1*x_(k+1)+x_2+...+x_k>=k

But now since we have x_1<1<x_(k+1), thus by (a),
x_1+x_2+...+x_k+x_(k+1)>=k+1

Therefore the statement is true for n=k+1.

By the principle of M.I., the statement is true for all n>=1.

The "hence" part is leaved for you.
參考: ME


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