Thanks for the answers everyone. By the way I honestly had no idea this question was already asked- and such a short time ago- Strange, I must have tapped into the collective consciousness.
By the way.. most of these proofs/demonstrations seem to go on the assumption that 1/3 exactly equalls .33333.... I was taught it's more accurate to keep an answer in fraction form than to make an approximatioin using decimals - no matter how many places you go to. Are we really positve that .33333 equalling one is not just a practical convenience because any difference would be so small that it would be insiginifigant to us with our relitively primitive measuring instruments? Just a thought.