If buyer, demand of elasticity has higher elasticity compare with that of seller, why the buyer has lower share of subsidies? (enjoy lower benefit of subsidies)
I want the answer can be explained in common sense but not in curve approach. PLZ!!
收錄日期: 2021-04-13 15:02:41
原文連結 [永久失效]:
https://hk.answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20080128000051KK02717