i don't understand the b part,
why g(0)=f(x)-f(0)/(x-0)= derivative of f(x) ??
in fact, i just don't know why g(0)=f(x)-f(0)/(x-0) .....
is this question so stupid?
.....
更新1:
just ignore my poor handwriting, it is not relevant( some )
just ignore my poor handwriting, it is not relevant( some )
收錄日期: 2021-04-29 19:43:23
原文連結 [永久失效]:
https://hk.answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20080107000051KK04000