2(p+q) ^2 - 6( p+q) ^3
= (2(p+q)^2 )( 1-3(p+q))
= (2(p+q)^2)(1-3p-3q)
why is ( 1 -3(p+q)) ????
如何有 1 ??
maths (factorization)
2007-12-29 2:46 am
回答 (1)
2007-12-29 3:09 am
✔ 最佳答案
因為你而家由第一條式抽左 一個 2(p+q) ^2 出黎2(p+q) ^2 - 6( p+q) ^3
= (2(p+q)^2 )( 1-3(p+q))
好簡單, 你想想 y= (p+q)
而家就係 2y^2 - 6y^3
而家抽 2y^2 出黎 2y^2 (1-3y)
2007-12-28 19:10:18 補充：
所以就有 1 出左黎啦~
收錄日期: 2021-04-13 14:49:27
原文連結 [永久失效]:
https://hk.answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20071228000051KK03796