MATH - GROUP

2007-11-27 6:33 am
1. Let G be a group such that there exists an x belongs to G such that for all
g belongs to G, ord(g) less than·ord(x).

1) Suppose that G is abelian, show that for all g belongs G, ord(g) divides ord(x).

2) If G is a not abelian, show that the conclusion in 1) is no longer true.

回答 (2)

2007-11-28 11:28 pm
✔ 最佳答案
Please check your assumption:
Since x belongs to G which is a group, there exists an element, say y, in G such that xy=yx=e where e is the identity element of G. Assume ord(x) be n, (i.e. x^n=e and x^m ≠e for all m<n). Then we can show that if G is abelian, ord(y)=ord(x), which contradicts with your assumption that for all g belonging to G, ord(g) is less than ord(x).
(1) (y)^n= e(y)^n=[x^n][y^n] (since x^n=e)
=(xy)^n (since G is abelian)
=e^n (since xy=e)
=e
(2) Assume that there exists an integer m such that m<n and y^m=e,
then x^m= (x^m)e
=(x^m)(y^m) (substitute y^m=e)
= (xy)^m (since G is abelian)
=e^m
=e, which contradicts to the given information that n=ord(x).
By (1) and (2), ord(y)=n=ord(x).
參考: I, me and myself
2007-11-27 6:37 am
你講??

請寫中文..
參考: me


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