It has been known that the inequality
holds for all real values of a's and b's.
Then, can it be verified that the inequalities
also hold for all real a's, b's, c's and d's ? (They are of similar form as the original Cauchy-Schwarz inequality)
And eventually, can we prove that
is true for all positive integers m and real x's?
If it does not hold, please state the condition for which it does not hold and give counter-example.