I recently think about the following statement:
‘For polynomial P and integer n ≧ deg(P)+1, dⁿ/dⁿx(P) = 0.’
Is that correct?
If yes, please give a proof. If no, please give a negative example.
收錄日期: 2021-04-23 16:43:29
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https://hk.answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20070223000051KK04286