amaths

2007-02-22 2:37 am
(1/√2)sinx + (1/√2)cosx <-------

= sin(π/4)sinx + cos(π/4)cosx


sin(π/4) = (√2)/2

但這裡不是1/√2嗎

回答 (2)

2007-02-22 2:40 am
✔ 最佳答案
sin(π/4) = (√2)/2 是對的
我們只要將1/√2有理化
(1/√2)(√2/√2)=√2/2
所以兩者是相等
兩者也是對的
2007-02-22 3:58 am
1/√2

= 1/√2 (√2 /√2 )

=√2/2

So,

sin(π/4) = (√2)/2 = 1/√2
參考: BY EASON MENSA


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