phy一問
2007-01-06 10:01 am
"If the resultant force acting on an object is zero, the object must be at rest."這句有咩唔o岩?
回答 (3)
2007-01-06 10:10 am
✔ 最佳答案
The object may move in uniform velocity, so that the acceleration is zero. The resultant force is thus zero as well.
2007-01-07 1:21 am
This statement is wrong.
By The Newton's first law of motion, an object will remain its motion state if the resultant force acting on it is zero.
That implies the object may move in uniform velocity or remain at rest if the resultant force acting on it is zero.
So, the statement should be corrected as:
If the resultant force acting on an object is zero, the object may be at rest.
By The Newton's first law of motion, an object will remain its motion state if the resultant force acting on it is zero.
That implies the object may move in uniform velocity or remain at rest if the resultant force acting on it is zero.
So, the statement should be corrected as:
If the resultant force acting on an object is zero, the object may be at rest.
參考: Concept of Newton's law of motion~~~
2007-01-06 5:46 pm
if the original state of the object is at rest,
when there is no net force acting on that body, it will keep its state as rest.
if the object is original keep motion,
when there is not net force acting on that body, it will keep moving in uniform velocity.
when there is no net force acting on that body, it will keep its state as rest.
if the object is original keep motion,
when there is not net force acting on that body, it will keep moving in uniform velocity.
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原文連結 [永久失效]:
https://hk.answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20070106000051KK00385