Let be the equivalent class of k mod p ,
then Fp = { <0> , <1> , <2> , ... , , } is a finite field of order p
and Rp = { <1> , <2> , ... , , } is a multiplicative ring of order p-1.
Since p>11 , <10> is well-defined and <1> is not equal to <10>.
Now, < 111...111 > = <10>^(p-2) +... + <10>^2 + <1> = <0> because
1) Every elements in Rp\{ <0> , <1> } are of order p-1 and hence
2) <10>^(p-2) ,... , <10>^2 and <1> are just p-1 distinct " non-zero " elements in Rp and hence in Fp.
3) Sum of all " non-zero " elements in Fp is equal to <0>.
Since <1 11...111 > = <0> , p must divide 111...111
2006-11-26 23:07:42 補充:
Hi-ya, not fast enough........
2006-11-30 15:31:45 補充:
SORRY" Let < k > be the equivalent class of k mod p , "